No one would really know, until they research state law, look at past court cases that are similar & how they turned out, and ultimately fought it out in court.
Many cases have turned out differently in different states. There will be many small issues that can make huge turns on how it ultimately would be decided.
There is no one easy answer to your question, and many have hinted at that. You added now that the access road was primitively there for a long time, before you were in the picture. That detail could affect the way a judge would look at it - depending on the Judge. As well any simple details the current or past landowners would supply could change how this all is viewed by a judge.
Just to me: A pasture is fenced, so how do you have a path through a pasture??? That has made me wonder from the beginning - but no big deal....
Many of us have dealt with the neighbor from heck who creates these issues. It brings out strong feelings from many of us - been there, been wronged by it. I hope you can understand that.
My opinion is, unless someone created an easement and compensated the landowner at that time for the easement, the owner of the pasture should be the one who can control the road & who is on it. If an easement was created in the past; it shoulda been written down on the deed. If not written down, that makes it all very messy again - following land owners don't know of the easement, and so could sue the previous seller for damages by not disclosing easements - and who knows where _that_ case would lead, or who would win.
In short, your question is one of those terrible, thorny, makes county commisioners & judges groan when they see it, type of questions. There is no easy answer, it becomes case by case if people want to push it.
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