You ask? Can I bill the bank since they own the land now?
ANSWER Bill the bank if you like BUTTTTT that likely wont get you diddly squat. Theres no "privity of contract" between you and the bank. They didnt hire you nor contract with you, they arent obligated to pay you for the mis deeds and breach of contract caused by another person (with whom you actually contracted). Their names NOT on any written contract with you nor were they a party to any oral contract it sounds like.
Also, they may or may NOT own the land now as you stated. Prior to that they would have to foreclose and then they would have to be the successful bidder at a sheriffs sale and receive a sheriff"s deed buttttttttt all that takes a long time ya know (at least a 6 months redemption period in some states). Id say the dude still "owns" the land until such time theres a judicial foreclosure and a deed is transferred.
What Id recommend is look into your states Mechanics Lien Statute and if all the requirements can be met the filing and perfection of such can ripen into a Lien against the real estate in which case the bank (should they become the new owner) might actually pay you in order to clear the title Woooooo Hoooooooooo.
DISCLAIMER Id consult a LOCAL attorney professional familair with YOUR STATES LAWS before hanging your hat on much said here (including my un researched remarks) as it dont carry much weight in a court of law.
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